1. Earth Systems and Resources 1/13, 7%
1. Approximately how old is the Earth?
Correct Answer: D. 4,500,000,000 years
Reasoning: The origin of the earth has scientifically been traced back to 4.5 billion. Scientific evidence from radiometric age dates the ages of the oldest-unknown terrestrial samples.
My answer: E. 45,000,000,000 years because I did not see that the answer choice was indicated as "45" which is wrong because there should be a point/coma to indicate "4.5."
2. An earthquake of Richter magnitude 2 releases ___ times less energy than an earthquake of Richter magnitude 4?
Correct: D. 100
Reasoning: The Richter scale is logarithmic, meaning that whole-number jumps indicate a tenfold increase ( or decrease) in wave amplitude; i.e., the wave amplitude in a level 2 earthquake is 100 times less than in a level 4 earthquake. However, the amount of energy released increases (or decreases) 31.7 times between whole number Richter values.
My Answer: I did not answer this question because I did not understand what "Richter" meant so I did not have the knowledge to answer or even take an educated guess.
3. The interface where tectonic plates slide or grind past each other in a horizontal direction is known as
Correct: A. transform plate boundary
Reasoning: Transform plate boundaries are locations where two plates slide past one another. The fracture zone that forms a transform plate boundary is known as a transform fault. Most transform faults are found in the ocean basin and are locations of recurring earthquake activity and faulting.
My Answer: I chose B. because I figured that if the two plates "grind" past each other, they would also merge or "converge."
5. Which of the following gases are considered "greenhouse gases"?
I. N2
II. CO2
III. CH4
IV. O3
V. H2O
Correct: C. II, III, IV, and V
Reasoning: Nitrogen (N2) is not a greenhouse gas because molecules containing two atoms of the same element, and monatomic gases such as argon (Ar), have no net change in their dipole moment when they vibrate and hence are almost totally unaffected by infrared radiation.
My Answer: I did not answer this question because I couldn't remember the specific greenhouse gasses. I knew that it was obviously H2O and O3 but I was not too sure about the other ones. I now know that molecules with two atoms of the same element can not be a greenhouse gas because of the lack in net change.
6. Which area listed below would be found in the regions of the Earth influenced by Ferrel cells?
Correct Answer: E. Southern Africa
Reasoning: The overall movement of the surface air in the Ferrel cell occurs between the 30th and the 60th north and south latitudes. Ecuador and the majority of the United States including mid-western states occur in the Hadley Cell, which lies between 30 degrees north and 30 degrees south latitudes while the Antarctic and Greenland are influenced by the polar cells.
My Answer: I did not answer this question because I did not know what Ferrel cells were so I could not even make an educated guess or answer the question correctly. I now know that these cells provide an example of a thermally indirect circulation.
7. Which of the following events about El Nino are TRUE?
Correct: C. I and II
Reasoning: El Nino episodes are defined as sustained warming of the central and eastern tropical Pacific Ocean resulting in a decrease in the strength of the Pacific trade winds. A deeper thermocline (often observed during El Nino years) limits the amount of the nutrients brought to shallower depths by the upwelling processes, greatly impacting the year's fish crop.
My Answer: I did not answer this because I did not know the past event of El Nino. I knew that trade winds were weakened prior to El Nino, so option II was correct, but I was not too sure about the other options. I should have just guessed between A. and B. since those were he only twp choices that included "II."
8. Water in areas of upwelling is generally
Correct: D. Cold and high in nutrients
Reasoning: Upwelling is a phenomenon that involves wind driven motion of dense, cooler, and usually nutrient rich water toward the surface, replacing the warmer, usually nutrient depleted surface water. The increased availability in the upwelling regions results in high levels of primary productivity and thus fishery production. Approximately 25% of the total global marine fish catches come from upwellings that occupy only 5% of the total ocean area. Upwellings that are driven by coastal currents or diverging open ocean have the greatest impact on nutrient enriched waters and global fishery yields
My Answers: I did not answer this question because I did not know what "upwelling" meant. I had an idea that it meant uprising but I was not entirely sure. I should have chose between D. and E. since they were the only answer choices that included "high."
9. Which of the following choices lists the amount of freshwater available on Earth in the correct descending order?
Correct: C. Glaciers and ice caps > groundwater > lakes > soil moisture > atmospheric moisture > rivers and streams
My Answer: I did not answer this question because I ran out of time when I tried to go back answer answer this question. I would have gotten this correct because it is the only answer that makes logical sense.
10. Freshwater used in developing countries is primarily used for
Correct: A. Agriculture
Reason: Agriculture accounts to 70% of the world's freshwater usage. Agricultural water use is heavy in the developing world with some countries in Asia, Africa, and South America using more than 79% of their total freshwater supply for agricultural purposes. In fact, 85-90% of all the freshwater that is used in Africa and Asia are for agriculture.
My Answer: I did not answer this because I ran out of time again but it makes sense that agriculture is the primary use for freshwater. Drinking water would have also made sense too, but agriculture provides a great amount of food, therefore more important that drinking water.
11. Currently, the use of freshwater by humans is increasing at about ____ rate or worldwide population growth
Correct: C. Twice the
Reason:Currently, 7 billion people use nearly 30% of the world's total accessible renewal supply of water. By 2025, with an estimated 8 billion people, that value is estimated to reach 70%.
My Answer: I did not answer this because I did not know the exact statistics for this particular question.
12. Which soil layer consists of clay, iron oxides, and other components that came fro the zone of leaching?
Correct: B. B
Reason: The B horizon is commonly referred to as "subsoil" and consists of mineral layers that may contain concentrations of clay or minerals such as iron or aluminum oxides or organic material that got there by leaching. Accordingly, this layer is also known as the zone accumulation.
My Answer: I did not answer this question because I did not know the certain levels of soil layers. I knew that it wasn't C. because that layer only contains rocks, but I was not sure about the other answer choices.
13. Which soil layer consists of about equal amounts of organic material and minerals?
Correct Answer: A.
Reasoning: The A horizon is the top layer of the soil horizons and is often referred to as "topsoil." This layer has a layer of dark decomposed organic materials, which is called "humus." The A horizon is the zone in which most biological activity occurs. Soil organisms such as earthworms, anthropoids, nematodes, fungi, and many species of bacteria are concentrated here, often in close association with plant roots. Soil and Soil Dynamics : Main Soil Types
My Answer: I chose B. because I did not realize that layer A was the zone where the most biological activity occurs. It makes sense that soil organisms are mostly found in this layer.
Correct Answer: D. 4,500,000,000 years
Reasoning: The origin of the earth has scientifically been traced back to 4.5 billion. Scientific evidence from radiometric age dates the ages of the oldest-unknown terrestrial samples.
My answer: E. 45,000,000,000 years because I did not see that the answer choice was indicated as "45" which is wrong because there should be a point/coma to indicate "4.5."
2. An earthquake of Richter magnitude 2 releases ___ times less energy than an earthquake of Richter magnitude 4?
Correct: D. 100
Reasoning: The Richter scale is logarithmic, meaning that whole-number jumps indicate a tenfold increase ( or decrease) in wave amplitude; i.e., the wave amplitude in a level 2 earthquake is 100 times less than in a level 4 earthquake. However, the amount of energy released increases (or decreases) 31.7 times between whole number Richter values.
My Answer: I did not answer this question because I did not understand what "Richter" meant so I did not have the knowledge to answer or even take an educated guess.
3. The interface where tectonic plates slide or grind past each other in a horizontal direction is known as
Correct: A. transform plate boundary
Reasoning: Transform plate boundaries are locations where two plates slide past one another. The fracture zone that forms a transform plate boundary is known as a transform fault. Most transform faults are found in the ocean basin and are locations of recurring earthquake activity and faulting.
My Answer: I chose B. because I figured that if the two plates "grind" past each other, they would also merge or "converge."
5. Which of the following gases are considered "greenhouse gases"?
I. N2
II. CO2
III. CH4
IV. O3
V. H2O
Correct: C. II, III, IV, and V
Reasoning: Nitrogen (N2) is not a greenhouse gas because molecules containing two atoms of the same element, and monatomic gases such as argon (Ar), have no net change in their dipole moment when they vibrate and hence are almost totally unaffected by infrared radiation.
My Answer: I did not answer this question because I couldn't remember the specific greenhouse gasses. I knew that it was obviously H2O and O3 but I was not too sure about the other ones. I now know that molecules with two atoms of the same element can not be a greenhouse gas because of the lack in net change.
6. Which area listed below would be found in the regions of the Earth influenced by Ferrel cells?
Correct Answer: E. Southern Africa
Reasoning: The overall movement of the surface air in the Ferrel cell occurs between the 30th and the 60th north and south latitudes. Ecuador and the majority of the United States including mid-western states occur in the Hadley Cell, which lies between 30 degrees north and 30 degrees south latitudes while the Antarctic and Greenland are influenced by the polar cells.
My Answer: I did not answer this question because I did not know what Ferrel cells were so I could not even make an educated guess or answer the question correctly. I now know that these cells provide an example of a thermally indirect circulation.
7. Which of the following events about El Nino are TRUE?
Correct: C. I and II
Reasoning: El Nino episodes are defined as sustained warming of the central and eastern tropical Pacific Ocean resulting in a decrease in the strength of the Pacific trade winds. A deeper thermocline (often observed during El Nino years) limits the amount of the nutrients brought to shallower depths by the upwelling processes, greatly impacting the year's fish crop.
My Answer: I did not answer this because I did not know the past event of El Nino. I knew that trade winds were weakened prior to El Nino, so option II was correct, but I was not too sure about the other options. I should have just guessed between A. and B. since those were he only twp choices that included "II."
8. Water in areas of upwelling is generally
Correct: D. Cold and high in nutrients
Reasoning: Upwelling is a phenomenon that involves wind driven motion of dense, cooler, and usually nutrient rich water toward the surface, replacing the warmer, usually nutrient depleted surface water. The increased availability in the upwelling regions results in high levels of primary productivity and thus fishery production. Approximately 25% of the total global marine fish catches come from upwellings that occupy only 5% of the total ocean area. Upwellings that are driven by coastal currents or diverging open ocean have the greatest impact on nutrient enriched waters and global fishery yields
My Answers: I did not answer this question because I did not know what "upwelling" meant. I had an idea that it meant uprising but I was not entirely sure. I should have chose between D. and E. since they were the only answer choices that included "high."
9. Which of the following choices lists the amount of freshwater available on Earth in the correct descending order?
Correct: C. Glaciers and ice caps > groundwater > lakes > soil moisture > atmospheric moisture > rivers and streams
My Answer: I did not answer this question because I ran out of time when I tried to go back answer answer this question. I would have gotten this correct because it is the only answer that makes logical sense.
10. Freshwater used in developing countries is primarily used for
Correct: A. Agriculture
Reason: Agriculture accounts to 70% of the world's freshwater usage. Agricultural water use is heavy in the developing world with some countries in Asia, Africa, and South America using more than 79% of their total freshwater supply for agricultural purposes. In fact, 85-90% of all the freshwater that is used in Africa and Asia are for agriculture.
My Answer: I did not answer this because I ran out of time again but it makes sense that agriculture is the primary use for freshwater. Drinking water would have also made sense too, but agriculture provides a great amount of food, therefore more important that drinking water.
11. Currently, the use of freshwater by humans is increasing at about ____ rate or worldwide population growth
Correct: C. Twice the
Reason:Currently, 7 billion people use nearly 30% of the world's total accessible renewal supply of water. By 2025, with an estimated 8 billion people, that value is estimated to reach 70%.
My Answer: I did not answer this because I did not know the exact statistics for this particular question.
12. Which soil layer consists of clay, iron oxides, and other components that came fro the zone of leaching?
Correct: B. B
Reason: The B horizon is commonly referred to as "subsoil" and consists of mineral layers that may contain concentrations of clay or minerals such as iron or aluminum oxides or organic material that got there by leaching. Accordingly, this layer is also known as the zone accumulation.
My Answer: I did not answer this question because I did not know the certain levels of soil layers. I knew that it wasn't C. because that layer only contains rocks, but I was not sure about the other answer choices.
13. Which soil layer consists of about equal amounts of organic material and minerals?
Correct Answer: A.
Reasoning: The A horizon is the top layer of the soil horizons and is often referred to as "topsoil." This layer has a layer of dark decomposed organic materials, which is called "humus." The A horizon is the zone in which most biological activity occurs. Soil organisms such as earthworms, anthropoids, nematodes, fungi, and many species of bacteria are concentrated here, often in close association with plant roots. Soil and Soil Dynamics : Main Soil Types
My Answer: I chose B. because I did not realize that layer A was the zone where the most biological activity occurs. It makes sense that soil organisms are mostly found in this layer.
2. The Living World 2/14, 14%
15. Which of the following is NOT an example of commensalism?
Correct Answer: D.
Reasoning: Commensalism is the association between two organisms in which one organism benefits from the association while the other gets neither benefits or harm from the association. This definition can be seen in choice D with the birds and the ants.
My Answer: I did not answer this question, although I should have because I do know what commensalism is. As long as the two organisms share an equal benefit, there is a commensalism relationship.
16. In this example, sea otters are considered to be a(n)
Correct Answer: B.
Reasoning: A keystone species has a disproportionately large effect on its environment relative to its abundance. They play a critical role in maintaining the stricture of an ecological community, affecting the other organisms in an ecosystem and helping determine the number and types of other species in the community.
My Answer: I did not answer this because I forgot what keystone, ecotone and indicator species meant. Since I now know what they mean, it makes sense that a sea otter would be a keystone because of the critical role they play in their community.
17. Which of the following represents intraspecific interaction(s)
Correct: D. Territoriality
Reason:Territoriality is behavior by a single animal, mating pair, or group of animals of the same species of an area occupied and often vigorously defended against intruders, especially those of the same species. All of the other choices are interspecific interactions. Ecosystem Structure: Interactions Among Species
My Answer: I did not answer this question because I did not know what "intraspecific" meant.
18. The marine zone that is essentially open ocean, and whose flora include surface seaweeds and those fauna include many species of fish and some mammals, such as whales and dolphins, is known as the
Correct Answer: B. pelagic zone
My Answer: I got this incorrect because I just took a guess. I now know that the pelangic of the ocean begins at the low tide mark and includes the entire oceanic water column.
19. Photosynthesis produces sugars from
Correct Answer: D. Carbon dioxide, water, and energy
Reasoning: Photosynthesis: 6CO2 + 6H2O ------> C6H12O6 + 6O2.
My Answer: I chose A but I have no idea why. I think I made a mistake on the bubble sheet because I most definitely knew the correct answer to this question.
21. Energy enters this system as sunlight. If a leaf from the plant contains 10 calories of energy and the leaf is totally consumed by the grasshopper, which is then totally consumed by the songbird, which then totally consumed by the owl, about how much of the energy from the leaf is eventually available as energy for the owl to use?
Correct Answer: B. 0.01 calories
Reasoning: A general rule of thumb is that approximately 10% of the energy entering one level of a trophic level passes onto the next higher level. Leaf (10 calories) > grasshopper (1 calorie) > songbird (0.1 calorie) > owl (0.01 calorie). This loss of energy is consistent with the Second Law of Thermodynamics, which states that no energy conversion is 100% efficient. The loss occurs as energy is trapped in indigestible parts and energy (heat) lost in metabolic processes. Energy Flow: Trophic Levels
My Answer: I did not answer this question because I was not aware that 10% of energy entering one level of a trophic level passes onto the next higher level.
22. An APES class performed and experiment of releasing and recapturing light and dark moths in the city and the country. The results are presented below: Which of ther following statements is TRUE?
Correct Answer: A. A higher percentage of light moths were recaptured in the country than were recaptured in the city.
Reasoning: To find the percentage of moths recaptured, divide the number of moths recaptured by the number of moths released. Sixty-six (200/300) of the light moths were recaptured in the country compared to only 50% (200/400) recaptured in the city. Ecosystem Diversity: Trophic Levels.
My Answer: I chose C because I read the table wrong because I thought the higher was the lower and the lower was the higher.
23. In New York City, where the quality of drinking water had fallen below standards required by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), authorities opted to restore the polluted Catskill Watershed. Once the input of sewage and pesticides to the watershed area was reduced, natural abiotic processes such as soil adsorption and filtration of chemicals, together with biotic recycling via root systems and soil microorganisms, water quality improved to levels that met government standards. The cost of this investment in natural capital was estimated between $1-1.5 billion, which contrasted dramatically with the estimated $6-8 billion cost of constructing a water filtration plant plus the $300 million annual running costs.
The Catskill Watershed provides _______ to New York City.
Correct Answer: E. ecosystem services
Reasoning: Humankind benefits from a multitude of resources and processes that are supplied by natural ecosystems. Collectively, these benefits are known as ecosystems services and include products like clean drinking water and processes such as decomposition of wastes.
My Answer: I did not choose an answer to this question because I did not have enough time to read the whole passage befpre the actual question.
24. In response to climate shifts due global warming, terrestrial animals can adapt, migrate, or die. Which of the following factors contribute to surviving the effects of global warming?
Correct Answer: B. II and IV.
Reasoning: In unstable and constantly changing environments, r-selection predominates since it has the ability to reproduce quickly, thus being able to adapt quicker. Choices II and IV are correct because they fall into this fact. I got this wrong because I had no idea what an r-strategist is or what this question was even asking.
My Answer: I chose A because I figured that long generational times would be a factor for terrestrial animals to adapt.
25. Which of the following would be subject to primary succession?
Correct Answer: A. rock exposed by a retreating glacier
Reason: Primary succession occurs in biotic communities in a previously uninhabited and barren habitat with little or no soil. Natural Ecosystem Change: Ecological Succession
My Answer: I chose E, but I did not know that primary successions occur in communities with no soil. This makes answer choice E incorrect. Therefore, answer choice A is the most appropriate for this question.
26. Which of the following would be TRUE regarding succession?
I. Growth of lichen on rocks after a fire destroyed a forest is an example of primary succession
II. Growth of grasses on a newly formed sand dune is an example of secondary succession
III. Growth of algae on cooled lava rock is an example of secondary succession
IV. K-selected organisms are typical of primary succession
V. r-selected organisms are typical of secondary succession
Correct Answer: E. none are true
Reasoning: Primary succession occurs in biotic communities in a perviously uninhibited and barren habitat with little or no soil. Secondary succession is a process started by an event (e.g. forest fire, harvesting, hurricane) that reduces an already established ecosystem (e.g. a forest or a wheat field) to a smaller population of species, and as such, secondary succession occurs on pre-existing soil whereas primary succession usually occurs in a place lacking soil. Secondary succession is usually faster than primary succession as soil is already present, so there is no need for pioneer species and seeds, roots and underground vegetative organs of plants may still survive in the soil, in unstable or unpredictable environments, r-selection predominates as the ability to reproduce quickly is crucial. There is little advantage in adaptations that permit successful competition with other organisms because the environment is likely to change again. Traits that are thought to be characteristic of r-selection include: high fecundity (ability to produce many offspring), small body size, early maturity onset, short generation time, and the ability to disperse offspring widely. Examples include bacteria and diatoms, insects, and weeds. In stable or predictable environments, K-selection predominates as the ability to compare successfully for limited resources is crucial. Traits that are thought to be characteristic of K-selection include: large body size, long life expectancy, and the production of fewer offspring, which require extensive parental care until they mature. Organisms with K-selected traits include large organisms such as elephants, trees, humans, and whales.
My Answer: I did not answer this question because I did not know anything about succession. I always seem to get K and R selected organisms mixed up so I was not sure if they were true or not.
27. The first compound that ammonia is converted into in the nitrogen cycle is
Correct Answer: D. nitrite
Reasoning: The conversion of ammonium (NH4+) to nitrate (NO3-) is performed primarily by soil-living bacteria and other nitrifying bacteria. In the primary stage of nitrification, the oxidation of ammonium (NH4+) is performed by bacteria such as the Nitrosimonas species, which converts ammonia (NH3) to nitrites (NO2-). Other bacterial species, such as Nitrobacter, are responsible for the oxidation of the nitrites (NO2-) into nitrates (NO3-). It is important for the nitrates to be converted to nitrates because accumulated nitrites are toxic to plant life.
My Answer: I chose A. nitrate because I nitrogen and nitrate are similar and I was unfamiliar with what nitrate is.
Correct Answer: D.
Reasoning: Commensalism is the association between two organisms in which one organism benefits from the association while the other gets neither benefits or harm from the association. This definition can be seen in choice D with the birds and the ants.
My Answer: I did not answer this question, although I should have because I do know what commensalism is. As long as the two organisms share an equal benefit, there is a commensalism relationship.
16. In this example, sea otters are considered to be a(n)
Correct Answer: B.
Reasoning: A keystone species has a disproportionately large effect on its environment relative to its abundance. They play a critical role in maintaining the stricture of an ecological community, affecting the other organisms in an ecosystem and helping determine the number and types of other species in the community.
My Answer: I did not answer this because I forgot what keystone, ecotone and indicator species meant. Since I now know what they mean, it makes sense that a sea otter would be a keystone because of the critical role they play in their community.
17. Which of the following represents intraspecific interaction(s)
Correct: D. Territoriality
Reason:Territoriality is behavior by a single animal, mating pair, or group of animals of the same species of an area occupied and often vigorously defended against intruders, especially those of the same species. All of the other choices are interspecific interactions. Ecosystem Structure: Interactions Among Species
My Answer: I did not answer this question because I did not know what "intraspecific" meant.
18. The marine zone that is essentially open ocean, and whose flora include surface seaweeds and those fauna include many species of fish and some mammals, such as whales and dolphins, is known as the
Correct Answer: B. pelagic zone
My Answer: I got this incorrect because I just took a guess. I now know that the pelangic of the ocean begins at the low tide mark and includes the entire oceanic water column.
19. Photosynthesis produces sugars from
Correct Answer: D. Carbon dioxide, water, and energy
Reasoning: Photosynthesis: 6CO2 + 6H2O ------> C6H12O6 + 6O2.
My Answer: I chose A but I have no idea why. I think I made a mistake on the bubble sheet because I most definitely knew the correct answer to this question.
21. Energy enters this system as sunlight. If a leaf from the plant contains 10 calories of energy and the leaf is totally consumed by the grasshopper, which is then totally consumed by the songbird, which then totally consumed by the owl, about how much of the energy from the leaf is eventually available as energy for the owl to use?
Correct Answer: B. 0.01 calories
Reasoning: A general rule of thumb is that approximately 10% of the energy entering one level of a trophic level passes onto the next higher level. Leaf (10 calories) > grasshopper (1 calorie) > songbird (0.1 calorie) > owl (0.01 calorie). This loss of energy is consistent with the Second Law of Thermodynamics, which states that no energy conversion is 100% efficient. The loss occurs as energy is trapped in indigestible parts and energy (heat) lost in metabolic processes. Energy Flow: Trophic Levels
My Answer: I did not answer this question because I was not aware that 10% of energy entering one level of a trophic level passes onto the next higher level.
22. An APES class performed and experiment of releasing and recapturing light and dark moths in the city and the country. The results are presented below: Which of ther following statements is TRUE?
Correct Answer: A. A higher percentage of light moths were recaptured in the country than were recaptured in the city.
Reasoning: To find the percentage of moths recaptured, divide the number of moths recaptured by the number of moths released. Sixty-six (200/300) of the light moths were recaptured in the country compared to only 50% (200/400) recaptured in the city. Ecosystem Diversity: Trophic Levels.
My Answer: I chose C because I read the table wrong because I thought the higher was the lower and the lower was the higher.
23. In New York City, where the quality of drinking water had fallen below standards required by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), authorities opted to restore the polluted Catskill Watershed. Once the input of sewage and pesticides to the watershed area was reduced, natural abiotic processes such as soil adsorption and filtration of chemicals, together with biotic recycling via root systems and soil microorganisms, water quality improved to levels that met government standards. The cost of this investment in natural capital was estimated between $1-1.5 billion, which contrasted dramatically with the estimated $6-8 billion cost of constructing a water filtration plant plus the $300 million annual running costs.
The Catskill Watershed provides _______ to New York City.
Correct Answer: E. ecosystem services
Reasoning: Humankind benefits from a multitude of resources and processes that are supplied by natural ecosystems. Collectively, these benefits are known as ecosystems services and include products like clean drinking water and processes such as decomposition of wastes.
My Answer: I did not choose an answer to this question because I did not have enough time to read the whole passage befpre the actual question.
24. In response to climate shifts due global warming, terrestrial animals can adapt, migrate, or die. Which of the following factors contribute to surviving the effects of global warming?
Correct Answer: B. II and IV.
Reasoning: In unstable and constantly changing environments, r-selection predominates since it has the ability to reproduce quickly, thus being able to adapt quicker. Choices II and IV are correct because they fall into this fact. I got this wrong because I had no idea what an r-strategist is or what this question was even asking.
My Answer: I chose A because I figured that long generational times would be a factor for terrestrial animals to adapt.
25. Which of the following would be subject to primary succession?
Correct Answer: A. rock exposed by a retreating glacier
Reason: Primary succession occurs in biotic communities in a previously uninhabited and barren habitat with little or no soil. Natural Ecosystem Change: Ecological Succession
My Answer: I chose E, but I did not know that primary successions occur in communities with no soil. This makes answer choice E incorrect. Therefore, answer choice A is the most appropriate for this question.
26. Which of the following would be TRUE regarding succession?
I. Growth of lichen on rocks after a fire destroyed a forest is an example of primary succession
II. Growth of grasses on a newly formed sand dune is an example of secondary succession
III. Growth of algae on cooled lava rock is an example of secondary succession
IV. K-selected organisms are typical of primary succession
V. r-selected organisms are typical of secondary succession
Correct Answer: E. none are true
Reasoning: Primary succession occurs in biotic communities in a perviously uninhibited and barren habitat with little or no soil. Secondary succession is a process started by an event (e.g. forest fire, harvesting, hurricane) that reduces an already established ecosystem (e.g. a forest or a wheat field) to a smaller population of species, and as such, secondary succession occurs on pre-existing soil whereas primary succession usually occurs in a place lacking soil. Secondary succession is usually faster than primary succession as soil is already present, so there is no need for pioneer species and seeds, roots and underground vegetative organs of plants may still survive in the soil, in unstable or unpredictable environments, r-selection predominates as the ability to reproduce quickly is crucial. There is little advantage in adaptations that permit successful competition with other organisms because the environment is likely to change again. Traits that are thought to be characteristic of r-selection include: high fecundity (ability to produce many offspring), small body size, early maturity onset, short generation time, and the ability to disperse offspring widely. Examples include bacteria and diatoms, insects, and weeds. In stable or predictable environments, K-selection predominates as the ability to compare successfully for limited resources is crucial. Traits that are thought to be characteristic of K-selection include: large body size, long life expectancy, and the production of fewer offspring, which require extensive parental care until they mature. Organisms with K-selected traits include large organisms such as elephants, trees, humans, and whales.
My Answer: I did not answer this question because I did not know anything about succession. I always seem to get K and R selected organisms mixed up so I was not sure if they were true or not.
27. The first compound that ammonia is converted into in the nitrogen cycle is
Correct Answer: D. nitrite
Reasoning: The conversion of ammonium (NH4+) to nitrate (NO3-) is performed primarily by soil-living bacteria and other nitrifying bacteria. In the primary stage of nitrification, the oxidation of ammonium (NH4+) is performed by bacteria such as the Nitrosimonas species, which converts ammonia (NH3) to nitrites (NO2-). Other bacterial species, such as Nitrobacter, are responsible for the oxidation of the nitrites (NO2-) into nitrates (NO3-). It is important for the nitrates to be converted to nitrates because accumulated nitrites are toxic to plant life.
My Answer: I chose A. nitrate because I nitrogen and nitrate are similar and I was unfamiliar with what nitrate is.
3. Population 3/12, 25%
29. The graph below is of a paramecium population growing in culture over a period of 30 hours. If food is a limiting factor for this population, then increasing the amount of food available in the water at the beginning of the experiment will...
Correct Answer: C. have no effect on the population density between 0 and 15 hours
Reasoning: Having extra food in the water between 0 and 15 hours will generally not affect the population density during this time period. Assuming ideal conditions with more than enough food available during the time period, the paramecium are already reproducing at their maximum capacity. However, if there is extra food available at all times during the 30 hours of the experiment, then the time period of exponential growth is extended, increasing the population density until a point is reached that another limiting factor such as oxygen content in the water begins to affect the density of paramecium that can survive; at which point a new carrying capacity is established.
My Answer: I chose A because I assumed that increasing the amount of food in the beginning would increase the population because it would benefit further generations with more food.
30. Consider the following organisms
I. Elephant
II. Weeds
III. Mice
IV. Acorn Tree
V. Mosquitos
Which of the above would be considered K-strategists?
Correct Answer: C. I and IV
Reasoning: In stable or predictable environments, K-selection predominates, as the ability to compare successfully for limited resources in crucial and populations of K-selected organisms typically are very constant and close to the maximum that the environment can bear (unlike r-selected populations, where population sizes can change much more rapidly). Traits that are thought to be characteristic of K-slection include: large body size, long life expectancy, and the production of fewer offspring, which require extensive parental care until they mature. Examples of organisms with K-selected traits include large organisms such as elephants, trees, and whales.
My Answer: I did not answer this question because I always confuse K for R strategist and so I did not want to answer to incorrect thing. Although it would have been better to just make an educated guess I probably would have chosen C., as the correct answer.
31. In wild populations, individuals most often show a ________ pattern of dispersion
Correct Answer: A. clumped
Reasoning: In clumped distribution, the distance between neighboring individuals is minimized and is found in environments that are characterized by patchy resources. Clumped distribution is the most common type of dispersion found in nature because animals need certain resources to survive, and when these resources become scarce during certain parts of the year, animals tend to "clump" together around these crucial resources. Individuals might be clustered together in an area due to social factors such as herds or family groups. Organisms that usually serve as prey form clumped distributions in areas where they can hide and detect predators easily. Other causes of clumped distributions are the inability of offspring to independently move from their habitat. Clumped distributions in species also acts as a mechanism against predation as well as an efficient mechanism to trap or corner prey
My Answer: I chose D. because I figured that each individual would be different or scattered, but it's actuallt the opposite; clumped. It makes sense because the same resources are typically used for a populations because when when they are scarce, individuals lean towards the same ones.
32. Which of the choices above would be a characteristic survivorship curve for a songbird?
Correct Answer: D. D
Reasoning: Choice D is known as a Type II survivorship curve and is typical of species in which a fairly constant mortality rate is experienced regardless of age. Type I survivorship curves (E) are characterized by high survival in early and middle life, followed by a rapid decline in survivorship in later life. Humans are only of the species that show this patterns of survivorship. In Type III (B), the greatest mortality is experienced early on in life with relatively low rates of death for those surviving this bottleneck. This type of curve is characteristic of species that produce a large number of offspring, e.g., frogs.
My Answer: I chose E because I figured that since the question indicated that it would be a curve, either B., E., or C. would be the correct answer. Although this was an incorrect interpretation, I now know why D is correct. Songbirds tend to maintain a constant survivorship rate regardless of age.
34. A country with an annual population growth rate of 5% would double its population in approximately how many years?
Correct Answer: C. 14 years
Reasoning: The Rule-of-70 provides a simple way to calculate the approximate number of years it takes for the level of a variable growing at a constant rate to double. This rule states that the approximate number of years n for a variable growing at the constant growth rate of R percent, to double is n=70/r=70/5=14. Human Population: Doubling Times
My Answer: I chose A because I just guessed. I was not aware of the Rule-of-70.
35. Which of the following choices correctly shows how birthrates and death rates compare between current population growth trends and trends that occurred during the First or Neolithic Agricultural Revolution that occurred approximately 10,000 years ago?
Correct Answer: D.
First Agricultural Revolution Today
Birthrate: High Birthrate: Low
Death Rate: High Death Rate: Low
Reasoning: Prior to the First or Neolithic Agricultural Revolution, humans were hunters-gatherers. During the First Agricultural Revolution, humans began to domesticate animals and raise crops, which allowed a steady food supply. With a steady food supply, the population increased. However, without the current advancements in medical care, sanitation, food preservation, etc., both birth and death rates were high. Today's birth and death rates in many areas of the world are significantly lower than 10,000 years ago due to these advancements along with women joining the workforce, family planning, etc.
My Answer: I chose C because I confused the death rate with low in the First Agricultural Revolution and High for Today.
37. The most populous countries in the world are India, China, and
Correct Answer: B. United States
Reasoning: U.S Population is about 317 million.
My Answer: I did not have time to answer this question, but I would have chosen B. because it is the only answer that makes sense.
38. The world's current population of approximately 7 billion people with growth rate of 1.3% represents a doubling time of about 54 years. At this rate, according to current projections, the global population will likely reach between 7.5 and 10.5 by 2050. Which of the following would not be a viable strategy for ensuring adequate nutrition for a population of that size?
Correct Answer: C. Produce more meat products while decreasing the amount of the land devoted to grain and crop production
Reasoning: It takes about 16 lbs. of grain o produce just 1 lb. of meat and raising animals for food uses 30% of the Earth's landmass. Raising animals for food is grossly inefficient, because while animals eat large quantities of grain, soybeans oats, and corn, they only produce comparatively small amounts of meat and dairy products in return.
My Answer: I did not answer this because I did not have time to go back to this question and read the passage.
39. Worldwide human population growth within the last 100 years is primarily due to
Correct Answer: B. Decrease in the death rate
Reasoning: The combination decreasing death rate due to the march of progress in sanitation and medicine, coupled later with the decrease in birthrate due to changes in the economies, has led to a significant change in the population growth in the developed world.
My Answer:I chose D because I honestly just guessed. I can see why the decrease in death rate caused population growth with all of the new cures for diseases/sickness have quickly developed over time.
4. Land and Water Use 1/13, 7%
40. Which of the following was NOT a major component of the First Green Revolution?
Correct Answer: A. Genetic engineering of food crops
Reasoning: Genetically modified crops are crops that have been genetically engineered or modified in a lab setting. The majority of processed foods in the United States contain food products that have been genetically modified. The DNA of the organism is spliced and swapped out for "better" genes, which are theoretically designed to create stronger, more resistant, and more productive plants. Agriculture: Feeding a Growing Population: Green Revolution
My Answer: I did not answer this question because I did not know anything about the First Green Revolution.
41. Which type of insecticide developed during the 19th century affects the nervous system of an insect by disrupting the enzyme that regulates acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter? They usually are not persistent in the environment. Common examples include parathion and malathion.
Correct Answer: C. Organophosphates
Reasoning: Organophosphates are the most widely used group of insecticides used in the world today (approximately 40% of the world market) and are generally among the most acutely toxic of all pesticides to vertebrate animals. They are also unstable and therefore break down relatively quickly in the environment. Most organophosphate pesticides are insecticides, although there are also a number of related herbicide and fungicide compounds. In developing countries, organophosphates are widely used because they are less expensive than the newer pesticide alternatives. Their use is banned or restricted in 23 countries, their import is illegal in a total of 50 countries, and they were banned in the United States in 2000 and have not been used since 2003.
My Answer: I did not answer this because I did not know what Organophosphates were.
42. Which of the following is NOT a principle of integrated pest management (IPM)?
Correct Answer: D. Using broad, non-specific insecticides to reduce or eliminate all pest populations before they have a chance to get out of control
Reasoning: In addition to (A), (B), (C), and (E), IPM also includes (1) biological controls, which promote beneficial insects that eat target pests and (2) responsible pesticide use, which is generally only used as required and often only at specific times in a pest's life cycle. Many of the newer pesticide groups are derived from plants or naturally occurring substances (e.g., nicotine, pyrethrum, and insect juvenile hormone analogues)
My Answer: I did not answer this question although I wish I did because it is the only answer that makes sense because of how the broadest type of insecticide is used.
43. The type of timber-harvesting method shown below is known as
Correct Answer: E. Shelterwood cutting
Reasoning: In a shelterwood cut, mature trees are removed in two or three harvests over a period of 10 to 15 year. This method allows regeneration of medium to low shade-tolerant species because of a "shelter" is left to protect them. Forestry: Forest Management
My Answer: I did not answer this question either because I did not know what this type of method meant. I knew it couldn't be "single tree selection" because there are various tree stumps next to each other that have been cut. It couldn't be "clear-cutting" either because there are still a handful of trees that haven't been cut yet.
44. Which of the choices below are effective method(s) of remediating the effects of desertification?
Correct Answer: E. I, II, III, IV
Reasoning: Market gardening is growing of vegetables and flowers on suburban land of high value for the supply of nearby cities. Heavy fertilizing, regular watering, and the planting of successive cops are employed to obtain continuous returns from the acreage. I didn't know any of this and guessed again. I am a horrible guesser.
My Answer: I chose C because I just guessed. I now see how "I", reforestation could be an option to remediate, but I just did not read this option. Planting market gardens to keep soil from flying away would also benefit a forest.
45. Which of the following is a characteristic of urban sprawl?
Correct Answer: D. Job sprawl
Reasoning: Job sprawl is defined as low-density, geographically spread-out patterns of employment, where the majority of jobs in a given metropolitan area are located outside of the main city's central business district and suburbs. It is often the result of urban disinvestment and the desire of many companies to locate in low-density areas that are often more affordable and offer potential for expansion. Other Land Use: Urban Land Development: Suburban Sprawl
My Answer: I did not answer this question because I did not know what urban Sprawl, therefore I did not know what the question was asking exactly.
46. During which U.S. presidency did the first federal highway system develop?
Correct Answer: D. Dwight Eisenhower (1953-1961)
Reasoning: In 1919 when Dwight Eisenhower was a young officer in the U.S. Army, it took two months for a military convoy to travel by roads from Washington, D.C. to San Francisco. Later, when Eisenhower was a general during WWII, he had first-hand knowledge of the German autobahn. The Federal-Aid Highway Act of 1956 extended the federal highway system with a minimum of two wider lanes in each direction and larger paved shoulders and was designed for traveling at 50-70 mph (80-113 km per hour). Today the network stretches 47,000 miles (75,000 km). Other Land Use: Transportation Infrastructure: Federal Highway System
My Answer: I did know this answer but I left it blank because I ran out of time to go back and read it.
47. Which of the following lists land use in order from the smallest collective area on earth to the largest?
Correct Answer: D.
Reasoning: Cities occupy approximately 5% of the earths land surface; forests occupy approximately one-third of the earth's surface; and land used for agricultural purposes occupies approximately half of all the earth's land surface. I got it wrong because there were more statistics that I didn't even know.
My Answer: I chose A because I knew that cities would be last but I was not too sure about forest or agriculture. Looking back I now realize that it was a mistake to think that Forests was more collective than agriculture.
49. Rainwater runoff from the US Route 7 in South Burlington, Vermont polluted local streams that fed into Lake Champlain, a source of drinking water. The city of South Burlington and the Vermont Agency of Natural Resources constructed a storm water treatment system along Bartlett Brook to control the pollution. The project also included the cleanup and widening of a steam channel and creation of a new wetland in the area from an area that had once been occupied by an industrial factory. This is an example of environmental
Correct Answer: C. mitigation
Reasoning: Environmental mitigation involves steps taken to avoid or minimize negative environmental impacts. mitigation can include: avoiding the impact by not taking a certain action; minimizing impacts by limiting the degree or magnitude of the action; rectifying the impact by repairing or restoring the affected environment; reducing the impact by protective steps required with the action; and/or compensating for the impact by replacing or providing substitute resources. The example is not preservation as nothing was preserved. Environmental remediation deals with the removal of pollution or contaminants from environmental media such as soil, groundwater, sediment, or surface water. Restoration involved bringing back to a former or original state. Other Land Use: Land Conservation Options: Preservation, Remediation, Mitigation, Restoration
My Answer: I guessed by choosing E. because I did not know what some of the answers meant.
50. The type of mining that produces 85% of minerals (excluding petroleum and natural gas) in the United States, including 89% of metallic ores, is known as
Correct Answer: A. surface mining
Reasoning: Surface mining is done by removing (stripping) surface vegetation, dirt, and if necessary, layers of bedrock in order to reach buried ore deposits. Techniques of surface mining include open-pit mining, which consists of recovery of materials from an open put in the ground, quarrying or gathering building materials from an open pit mine; strip mining, which consists of stripping surface layers off to reveal/ore seams underneath; and mountaintop removal, commonly associated with coal mining, which involves taking the top of a mountain off to reach ore deposits. Other Land Use: Mining: Extraction
My Answer: I did not answer this but I wish I did because answer A is the only one that makes sense. Surface mining is the most common type and since is is a great amount (85%) used to produce minerals, the answer should have been obvious to me.
51. The type of fishing illustrated below is
Correct Answer: E. purse seining
Purse seining establishes a large wall of netting to encircle schools of fish. Fishermen pull the bottom of the netting closed- like a drawstring purse- to herd fish into the center. This method is used to catch schooling fish, such as sardines, or species that gather to spawn, such as squid.
My Answer: I did not know what purse seining was or looked liked, and because I have only ever heard of trolling fishing, I assumed the answer to be D.
52. The 'Tragedy of the Commons' illustrates how
Correct Answer: B. the pursuit of short-term individual gain often leads to long-term collective costs
Reasoning: The "Tragedy of the Commons," written by ecologist Garrett Hardin in 1968, illustrates the argument that free access and unrestricted demand for a finite resource ultimately reduces the resource through overexploitation. This occurs because the benefits of exploitation accrue to individuals or groups, each of whom is motivated to maximize use of the resource to the point in which they become reliant on it, while the costs of the exploitation are borne by all those to whom the rescue is available (which may be a wider class of individuals than those who are exploiting it). This, in turn, causes demand for the resource to increase, which causes the problem to increase to the point that the resource is depleted. Global Economics: Tragedy of the Commons
My Answer: Although I do remember hearing this term, I completely forgot what it was. B is the only answer that actually defies tragedy of the commons.
Correct Answer: A. Genetic engineering of food crops
Reasoning: Genetically modified crops are crops that have been genetically engineered or modified in a lab setting. The majority of processed foods in the United States contain food products that have been genetically modified. The DNA of the organism is spliced and swapped out for "better" genes, which are theoretically designed to create stronger, more resistant, and more productive plants. Agriculture: Feeding a Growing Population: Green Revolution
My Answer: I did not answer this question because I did not know anything about the First Green Revolution.
41. Which type of insecticide developed during the 19th century affects the nervous system of an insect by disrupting the enzyme that regulates acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter? They usually are not persistent in the environment. Common examples include parathion and malathion.
Correct Answer: C. Organophosphates
Reasoning: Organophosphates are the most widely used group of insecticides used in the world today (approximately 40% of the world market) and are generally among the most acutely toxic of all pesticides to vertebrate animals. They are also unstable and therefore break down relatively quickly in the environment. Most organophosphate pesticides are insecticides, although there are also a number of related herbicide and fungicide compounds. In developing countries, organophosphates are widely used because they are less expensive than the newer pesticide alternatives. Their use is banned or restricted in 23 countries, their import is illegal in a total of 50 countries, and they were banned in the United States in 2000 and have not been used since 2003.
My Answer: I did not answer this because I did not know what Organophosphates were.
42. Which of the following is NOT a principle of integrated pest management (IPM)?
Correct Answer: D. Using broad, non-specific insecticides to reduce or eliminate all pest populations before they have a chance to get out of control
Reasoning: In addition to (A), (B), (C), and (E), IPM also includes (1) biological controls, which promote beneficial insects that eat target pests and (2) responsible pesticide use, which is generally only used as required and often only at specific times in a pest's life cycle. Many of the newer pesticide groups are derived from plants or naturally occurring substances (e.g., nicotine, pyrethrum, and insect juvenile hormone analogues)
My Answer: I did not answer this question although I wish I did because it is the only answer that makes sense because of how the broadest type of insecticide is used.
43. The type of timber-harvesting method shown below is known as
Correct Answer: E. Shelterwood cutting
Reasoning: In a shelterwood cut, mature trees are removed in two or three harvests over a period of 10 to 15 year. This method allows regeneration of medium to low shade-tolerant species because of a "shelter" is left to protect them. Forestry: Forest Management
My Answer: I did not answer this question either because I did not know what this type of method meant. I knew it couldn't be "single tree selection" because there are various tree stumps next to each other that have been cut. It couldn't be "clear-cutting" either because there are still a handful of trees that haven't been cut yet.
44. Which of the choices below are effective method(s) of remediating the effects of desertification?
Correct Answer: E. I, II, III, IV
Reasoning: Market gardening is growing of vegetables and flowers on suburban land of high value for the supply of nearby cities. Heavy fertilizing, regular watering, and the planting of successive cops are employed to obtain continuous returns from the acreage. I didn't know any of this and guessed again. I am a horrible guesser.
My Answer: I chose C because I just guessed. I now see how "I", reforestation could be an option to remediate, but I just did not read this option. Planting market gardens to keep soil from flying away would also benefit a forest.
45. Which of the following is a characteristic of urban sprawl?
Correct Answer: D. Job sprawl
Reasoning: Job sprawl is defined as low-density, geographically spread-out patterns of employment, where the majority of jobs in a given metropolitan area are located outside of the main city's central business district and suburbs. It is often the result of urban disinvestment and the desire of many companies to locate in low-density areas that are often more affordable and offer potential for expansion. Other Land Use: Urban Land Development: Suburban Sprawl
My Answer: I did not answer this question because I did not know what urban Sprawl, therefore I did not know what the question was asking exactly.
46. During which U.S. presidency did the first federal highway system develop?
Correct Answer: D. Dwight Eisenhower (1953-1961)
Reasoning: In 1919 when Dwight Eisenhower was a young officer in the U.S. Army, it took two months for a military convoy to travel by roads from Washington, D.C. to San Francisco. Later, when Eisenhower was a general during WWII, he had first-hand knowledge of the German autobahn. The Federal-Aid Highway Act of 1956 extended the federal highway system with a minimum of two wider lanes in each direction and larger paved shoulders and was designed for traveling at 50-70 mph (80-113 km per hour). Today the network stretches 47,000 miles (75,000 km). Other Land Use: Transportation Infrastructure: Federal Highway System
My Answer: I did know this answer but I left it blank because I ran out of time to go back and read it.
47. Which of the following lists land use in order from the smallest collective area on earth to the largest?
Correct Answer: D.
Reasoning: Cities occupy approximately 5% of the earths land surface; forests occupy approximately one-third of the earth's surface; and land used for agricultural purposes occupies approximately half of all the earth's land surface. I got it wrong because there were more statistics that I didn't even know.
My Answer: I chose A because I knew that cities would be last but I was not too sure about forest or agriculture. Looking back I now realize that it was a mistake to think that Forests was more collective than agriculture.
49. Rainwater runoff from the US Route 7 in South Burlington, Vermont polluted local streams that fed into Lake Champlain, a source of drinking water. The city of South Burlington and the Vermont Agency of Natural Resources constructed a storm water treatment system along Bartlett Brook to control the pollution. The project also included the cleanup and widening of a steam channel and creation of a new wetland in the area from an area that had once been occupied by an industrial factory. This is an example of environmental
Correct Answer: C. mitigation
Reasoning: Environmental mitigation involves steps taken to avoid or minimize negative environmental impacts. mitigation can include: avoiding the impact by not taking a certain action; minimizing impacts by limiting the degree or magnitude of the action; rectifying the impact by repairing or restoring the affected environment; reducing the impact by protective steps required with the action; and/or compensating for the impact by replacing or providing substitute resources. The example is not preservation as nothing was preserved. Environmental remediation deals with the removal of pollution or contaminants from environmental media such as soil, groundwater, sediment, or surface water. Restoration involved bringing back to a former or original state. Other Land Use: Land Conservation Options: Preservation, Remediation, Mitigation, Restoration
My Answer: I guessed by choosing E. because I did not know what some of the answers meant.
50. The type of mining that produces 85% of minerals (excluding petroleum and natural gas) in the United States, including 89% of metallic ores, is known as
Correct Answer: A. surface mining
Reasoning: Surface mining is done by removing (stripping) surface vegetation, dirt, and if necessary, layers of bedrock in order to reach buried ore deposits. Techniques of surface mining include open-pit mining, which consists of recovery of materials from an open put in the ground, quarrying or gathering building materials from an open pit mine; strip mining, which consists of stripping surface layers off to reveal/ore seams underneath; and mountaintop removal, commonly associated with coal mining, which involves taking the top of a mountain off to reach ore deposits. Other Land Use: Mining: Extraction
My Answer: I did not answer this but I wish I did because answer A is the only one that makes sense. Surface mining is the most common type and since is is a great amount (85%) used to produce minerals, the answer should have been obvious to me.
51. The type of fishing illustrated below is
Correct Answer: E. purse seining
Purse seining establishes a large wall of netting to encircle schools of fish. Fishermen pull the bottom of the netting closed- like a drawstring purse- to herd fish into the center. This method is used to catch schooling fish, such as sardines, or species that gather to spawn, such as squid.
My Answer: I did not know what purse seining was or looked liked, and because I have only ever heard of trolling fishing, I assumed the answer to be D.
52. The 'Tragedy of the Commons' illustrates how
Correct Answer: B. the pursuit of short-term individual gain often leads to long-term collective costs
Reasoning: The "Tragedy of the Commons," written by ecologist Garrett Hardin in 1968, illustrates the argument that free access and unrestricted demand for a finite resource ultimately reduces the resource through overexploitation. This occurs because the benefits of exploitation accrue to individuals or groups, each of whom is motivated to maximize use of the resource to the point in which they become reliant on it, while the costs of the exploitation are borne by all those to whom the rescue is available (which may be a wider class of individuals than those who are exploiting it). This, in turn, causes demand for the resource to increase, which causes the problem to increase to the point that the resource is depleted. Global Economics: Tragedy of the Commons
My Answer: Although I do remember hearing this term, I completely forgot what it was. B is the only answer that actually defies tragedy of the commons.
5. Pollution 4/24, 16%
53. A store uses one-hundred 200-watt lightbulbs for 10 hours per day. How many kilowatt-hours of electrical energy are used in one year if the store is open 50 weeks per year, 6 days per week?
Correct Answer: B. 60,000
Reasoning:
100 lightbulbs 200 watts 10 hours 6 days 50 weeks 1 kilowatt
--------------- x ----------- x ---------- x -------- x ----------- x ----------- =
1 1 lightbulb 1 day 1 week 1 year 1,000 watts
60,000 kilowatt - hours
--------------------------
year
My Answer: I did not choose an answer because I did not have time to work out the problem.
54. The gas mileage of one model of the 2003 Hummer 2 was determined to be 8 miles per gallon. The 2012 Mitsubishi i-MiEV is an all-electric vehicle and when using a conversion factor to convert the fuel economy into miles per gallon of gasoline equivalent (MPGe), it is rated at 112 miles per gallon of gasoliine. How much more efficient in fuel consumption is the all electric vehicle over the Hummer 2?
Correct Answer: E. 1300%
Reasoning: The perfect change is calculated as %=Vf-Vi/Vi x 100% where Vf is the final value and Vi is the initial value. Therefore, %=112-8/8 x 100%= 1300%. Energy Concepts: Conversions
My Answer: I did not answer this question because I did not want to waste time trying to figure out what formulas to use. I figured that I had a better chance of answering other questions that did not require math correctly.
55. In an internal combustion automobile engine, only about 20% of the high-quality chemical energy available in the gasoline is converted to mechanical energy used to propel the car; the remaining 80% is degraded to low-quality heat that is released into the environment. In addition, about 50% of the mechanical energy produced is also degrade to low-quality heat energy through friction, so that 90% of the energy in gasoline is wasted and not used to move the car. This best illustrates which principle below?
Correct Answer: B. Second Law of Thermodynamics
Reasoning: The Second Law of Thermodynamics states that energy varies in its quality or ability to do useful work. For useful work to occur, energy must move or flow from a level or high-quality (more concentrated) energy to a level of lower-quality (less concentrated) energy. The chemical potential energy concentrated in a tank of gasoline is an example of high-quality energy. Because the energy in gasoline is concentrated, it has the ability to perform useful work in moving or changing matter. In contrast, less concentrated heat energy at a low temperature has little remaining ability to perform useful work. Energy Concepts: Laws of Thermodynamics
My Answers: I chose C but it was only because I mixed up the laws of thermodynamics. I did know that it was one of the three, so I took an educated guess between the three.
56. Per capita, the U.S uses about ____ amount of oil per day than China
Correct Answer: D. Ten times the
Reasoning: The United States consumes about 19 million barrels (800 million gallons) of oil per day; oil that is used to produce gasoline, manufacturing products, heating and power, etc. With the United States population at approximately 313 million, this works out to be about 2.5 gallons (10 L) of oil per person per day. In contrast, China, with almost three times the population of the United States, currently consumes 8.2 million barrels of oil (345 million gallons (1.3 billion L)) per day, which represents about 0.25 gallons per person per day. However, with a rising standard of living, this figure is expected to rise, and compounded with the larger population, China is expected to become the world's primary oil consumer. Because oil is a finite resource, according to the law of Supply and Demand, prices expected to rise.
My Answer: I did not choose an answer because I had no idea what this statistic was. I did know that it was more than China but not the exact amount. So I knew for sure that it could not be A. half the.
57. In the United States, on average, ______ energy is used to heat homes than is used to cool them.
Correct Answer: E. 250% more
Reasoning: The amount of energy required for heating a home far outpaces that used to cool it. In fact, over the course of a year nearly one third of a typical utility bill in the United States goes to heating. For most of the United States, on average, the temperature difference in the winter is about twice that of the summer to maintain an indoor temperature of 75 degrees F (25 degrees C). For example, during the winter, if the temperature outside is 35 degrees F (2 degrees C), that represents a 40 degree F difference. However, if the outdoor temperature in summer reaches 95 degrees F (35 degrees C), that represents a 20 degree F difference in order to keep the indoor temperature at 75 degrees F (24 degrees C). Energy Consumption: Present Global Energy Use
My Answer: I did know that more used to heat homes rather than cool them but I did not know that the average was that much. I chose C.
58. Which sector listed below currently uses the largest amount of energy in the world?
Correct Answer: B. Industrial (e.g., manufacturing plants)
Reasoning: The industrial sector uses more delivered energy than any other end-use sector, consuming about one-half of the world's total delivered energy. The industrial sector comprises a diverse set of industries, including manufacturing (e.g, food, paper, chemicals, refining, iron and steel, etc.) and non-manufacturing (e.g., agriculture, mining, construction, etc.). The mix and intensity of fuels consumed in the industrial sector vary across regions and countries, depending on the level and mix of economic activity and technological development. Energy Consumption: Present Global Energy Use
My Answer: I chose "D". I was stuck between Industrial and Transportation because manufacturing plants (industrial) emit and release toxins that can harm the environment. On the other hand, transportation emit carbon compounds into the environment that destroy the ozone layer/greenhouse effect.
59. The estimated natural gas reserves in the United States are estimated at 2,170 trillion cubic feet (Tcf). The rate of consumption of natural gas in the United States is approximately 62 billion cubic feet per day. Approximately how long will the United States natural gas reserves last at the current rate of consumption?
Correct Answer: D. 100 years
Reasoning: Fossil Fuel Resources and Use: World Reserves and Global Demand
2,400 x 10^12 ft^3 1 year
--------------------- x -------- = (40 x 10^3) / 365 approx. 100 years
60 x 10^9 ft^3/day 365 day
My Answer: I did try to work out the math because I did not know what formula to use. I figured that I had a better chance of answering the non-math questions.
60. Which of the following has the largest potential negative environment impact on global warming?
Correct Answer: C. Natural gas
Reasoning: Natural gas (mostly methane) when burned produces 45% less carbon dioxide than coal and 30% less carbon dioxide than oil. However, methane is about 20 times more dangerous for greenhouse warming than carbon dioxide so incomplete combustion or any leakage of natural gas (from animals, pipelines, landfills, melting tundra, sea floor hydrates, etc.) contributes strongly to greenhouse emissions and global warming. Fossil Fuel Resources and Use: Environmental Advantages/Disadvantages of Sources
My Answer: I chose B because I knew that i had a negative affect on the environment but I just didn't know how bad. Natural gas is a better fit because it has the worst impact on the environment when it is burned.
61. Which country listed below obtains the greatest percentage of its electricity from nuclear power?
Correct Answer: E. France
Reasoning: Nuclear power provides about 80% of the electricity produced in France compared to 20% for the United States, and France's electricity price is among the lowest in Europe. Nuclear Energy: Electricity Production
My Answer: I chose C because I remember reading a passage in the text book about China relying on nuclear power in the future, but apparently I was wrong.
63. Which of the following methods of producing electricity is the MOST efficient?
Correct Answer: E. Hydroelectric Power Plants
Reasoning: Much of the energy content of the available energy sources is wasted by inefficiencies due to the energy conversion and distribution processes. A typical example is domestic electric lighting. Less than 1% of the energy consumed to provide the electricity is ultimately converted into light energy. The other 99% is wasted in the supply chain. Using a conventional fossil fueled generating plant, losses accumulate as follows:
-10% of the energy content of the fuel is lost in combustion and only 90% of the calorific content is transferred to the steam
the steam turbine efficiency in converting the energy the energy in converting the energy content of the steam into mechanical energy is limited to about 40%
-Transmission of the electrical energy over the distribution grid between the power station and the consumer results in a distribution loss of 10% mainly due to the resistance of the electrical cables.
-Further energy is lost due to the energy conversion efficiency of the end user's appliance. Incandescent lighting is particularly inefficient, converting only 2% of the electrical energy into light.
Hydroelectric Power: Dams
My Answer: I chose A because I figured that the future would rely heavily on nuclear energy. I knew it wouldn't be non renewable energy like burning coal or burning natural gas so I was between A and E.
64. Which of the following is the LEAST likely environmental consequence of building hydroelectric dams?
Correct Answer: C. Dams increase silting downstream
Reasoning: Dams built across rivers slow down the river's flow and cause sediments in the water to deposit to the bottom of the reservoir behind the dam. As the sediments accu- mulate in the reservoir, the dam gradually loses its ability to store water. The rate of reservoir sedimentation depends mainly on the size of a reservoir relative to the amount of sediment flowing into it: a small reservoir on an extremely muddy river will rapidly lose capacity whereas a large reservoir on a very clear river may take some time to lose an appreciable amount of storage. Large reservoirs in the United States lose storage capacity at an average rate of around 0.2% per year while most major reservoirs in China lose capacity at an annual rate over 2%. Hydroelectric Power: Silting
My Answer: I chose E but now that I'm looking back, my answer choice made no sense. Damns decreasing the flow of water downstream would be a huge consequence of building hydroelectric dams. I obviously didn't read the question correctly because I actually answered the opposite.
65. Which government agency administers and regulates CAFE standards?
Correct Answer: B. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA)
Reasoning: First enacted by Congress in 1975, the purpose of CAFE (Corporate Average Fuel Economy) is to reduce energy consumption by increasing the fuel economy of cars and light trucks. The NHTSA administers the CAFE program and sets fuel economy standards for cars and light trucks sold in the United States, while the EPA provides the fuel economy data and calculates the average fuel economy for each manufacturer.
My Answer: I did not answer this question because I had not idea what "CAFE" stood for.
66. A 42 watt CFL (compact fluorescent light) bulb produces 2,600 lumens of light lasts approximately 10,000 hours, and costs $13.00. A 150-watt incandescent light bulb produces the same amount of light, lasts only 1,000 hours, and costs $2.00. If electricity runs $0.10 per kWh, how much will the CFL save over the lifetime of the bulb compared to using the incandescent bulbs.
Correct Answer: E. $115.00
Reasoning: To begin with, you will need to buy 10 incandescent lightbulbs to last the same amount of time as the CFL: 10 x $2.00 = $20. By buying the CFL, you therefore save $20-$13 =$7.
The total cost of energy for the incandescent bulbs would be:
10 incan LB 150 watts 1 kilowatt 1,000 hours $0.10
------------- x ---------- x ----------- x ------------- x ------- = $150.00
1 1 incan LB 1,000 watts 1 1 kWh
The total cost of energy for the single CFL bulb would be:
10 CFL bulbs 42 watts 1 kilowatt 10,000 hours $0.10
-------------- x ---------- x ------------ x ------------- x ------- = $42.00
1 1 CFL bulb 1,000 watts 1 1 kWh
Therefore, you save $150.00 - $42.00 = $108.00 in energy for a total savings of $108.00 in energy + $7.00 saving in cost of bulb = $115.00 Energy Conservation: Energy Efficiency
My Answer: I did not answer this question because I figured it would take too much time trying to figure out which formula to use and to work out the calculations.
67. Which of the following renewable energy sources listed below is used the LEAST in the United States
Correct Answer: A. Solar
Picture:
6. Pollution 4/24, 16%
68. Which of the following would be classified as a secondary air pollutant?
Correct Answer: B. Acid rain
Reasoning: Primary air pollutants are pollutants that are released directly into the lower atmosphere (troposphere) and are toxic. Secondary air pollutants are those pollutants that are formed by the combination or chemical reaction of primary pollutants in the atmosphere. Acid rain forms from the chemical reaction in the atmosphere. Acid rain is formed by the reaction of sulfur dioxide and water vapor. Another example of secondary air pollutant would be PANs ( peroxacyl nitrates) which are formed by the hydrocarbons, oxygen,and nitrogen dioxide. Air Pollution: Sources- Primary and Secondary
My Answer: I did not answer this because I did not know what secondary air pollutant was.
69. Which of the following would NOT be classified as a criteria pollutant?
Correct Answer: E. Carbon dioxide
Reasoning: Criteria pollutants that do the most harm to humans. In addition to those listed by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), nitrogen dioxide (NO2), and lead (Pb) are also included. Air Pollution: Major Air Pollutants
My Answer: No Answer. Wasn't sure what a criteria pollutant was.
70. 1,500 parts per billion would be the same concentration as _____ parts per million.
Correct Answer: B. 1.5
Reasoning: This type of problem can easily be solved by factor analysis. Air Pollution: Measurement Units
1,500 parts 1 billion 1,000,000 parts
------------ x --------- x ----------------- = 1.5 ppm
1 billion 1,000,000,000 parts 1 million
My Answer: I did not want to work out the calculations.
71. Which one of the criteria pollutants listed below contributes to the formation of both acid decomposition AND photochemical smog?
Correct Answer: B. NO2
Reasoning: NO2 reacts with H2O to form nitrous acid and nitric acid,, which are both components found in acid deposition (rain): 2NO2+H2O----> HNO2+HNO3. Nitrogen dioxide also absorbs light energy and breaks down to form nitric oxide and atomic oxygen. Nitric oxide can then combine with ozone (O3) to form nitrogen dioxide is greater than the concentration of nitric oxide, then ozone is formed and can reach dangerous levels. if the concentration of nitrogen dioxide is less than the concentration of nitric acid, then the ozone is destroyed almost instantly, keeping the concentration of ozone stable and below a harmful threshold.Sulfur dioxide is only involved in formation of acid rain, not photochemical smog.
My Answer: No Answer. I didn't know what was acid deposition and photochemical smog was.
72. During the summer months, Los Angeles, California often experiences a temperature inversion. During this even
Correct Answer: B. Stable warm air lies above a mass of colder air, trapping air particulates close to the ground
Reasoning: Temperature inversions usually occur in urban areas when air pollutants are trapped close to the ground and are not able to rise into the atmosphere. Under normal conditions, warmer air, which is less dense than cooler air, will rise into the cooler atmosphere above. However, during a temperature inversion, the air above a city is warm, which prevents the polluted warmer air from rising, causing smog levels to increase, which results in increased respiratory distress. Air Pollution: Temperature Inversions
My Answer: I chose "E" because it is true that "Warm air rises while colder air sinks" due to cold air having a lower density; which is known as the "stack effect." Although, I wasn't sure if the second part of the answer was correct.
74. Which of the following criteria were used for acceptable exposure to specific air pollutants as addressed in the National Ambient Air Quality Standards set forth by the Clean Air Act?
I. The amount of time exposed to the air pollutant
II. The concentration of the air pollutant
III. The toxicity of the air pollutant
IV. The LD50 of the air pollutant
V. The number of people that would be at risk if exposed to the air pollutant
Correct Answer: A. I and II
Reasoning: National Ambient Air quality Standards (NAAQS) are standards established by the EPA under authority of the Clean Air Act that apply for outdoor air throughout the country, Primary standards are designed to protect human health, with an adequate margin of safety, including sensitive populations such as children, the elderly, and individuals suffering from respiratory diseases. Secondary standards are designed to protect the public welfare from any known or anticipated adverse effects of a pollutant. Air Pollution: Clear Air Act and Other Relevant Laws
My Answer: I chose B. I knew that the LC50 was not one of the answer choices but I did not know that the amount of time exposed to the air pollutant was one of them.
75. Which of the following statement(s) regarding noise pollution is/are TRUE?
I. Noise pollution is a significant occupational hazard and is regulated and enforced by the EPA.
II. Sound measured a 40 decibels is twice as loud as sound measured at 20 decibels
III. Noise pollutions is not a serious threat in the oceans as organisms that live in the water do not hear
IV. The Office of Noise Abatement and Control of the EPA is currently charged with regulating and overseeing noise abatement activities.
Correct Answer: E. III, IV, and V
Reasoning: Noise pollution in the workplace is regulated and enforced by OSHA a branch of the U.S Department of Labor. A difference of 20 decibels corresponds to an increase of 10 x 10 or 100 times in intensity, Reef fish, whales, dolphins, and other marine species rely on sounds to communicate. Under the Clear Air Act, the EPA established the Office of Noise Abatement and Control to carry out investigations and studies on noise and its effect on the public health and welfare. Through ONAC, the EPA coordinated all federal noise control activities, but in 1981 the administration concluded that noise issues were best handled at state and local level. As a result, ONAC was closed and primary responsibility of addressing noise issues were transferred to state and local governments. However, EPA retains authority to investigate and study noise and its effect, disseminate information to the public regarding noise pollution and its adverse health effects, respond to inquiries on matters related to noise, and evaluate the effectiveness of existing regulations for protecting the public health and welfare.
My Answer: I chose D because I thought that Noise pollutant was regulated and enforced by the EPA.
76. Which of the following forms of water pollution affects the largest number of people worldwide?
Correct Answer: D. Waterborne pathogens and diseases
Reasoning: The World Health Organization has estimated that about 1 billion people globally lack basic access to drinking water resources, while about 2.5 billion people have inadequate sanitation facilities, which accounts for many water related acute and chronic diseases. Some 3.5 million people, many of them young children, die each year from water-borne diseases such as intestinal diarrhea, cholera, typhoid fever, and dysentery, caused by microbially-contaminated water supplies that are linked to deficient or non existent sanitation and sewage disposal facilities. Globally, water-borne diseases are the second leading cause of death in children below the age of five years, while childhood mortality rates from acture respiratory infections ranks first.
My Answer: I chose "E" because usually in third world countries were factories are built, the water sources downstream are contaminated by the factories with the toxic materials. Now I see why it was answer choice "D" because pathogens and diseases can be in any water source and they can develop on its own.
77. An APES class was doing a field study of effluent water entering a river through a large drainage pipe from a large building. Which of the following would be a logical conclusion based upon their observation?
Correct Answer: B. The students detected measurable amounts of coliform bacteria in the river near the drainage pipe and concluded that the building could be a meatpacking plant.
Reasoning: In choice A), hot water does not promote the growth of algae-phosphates and/or nitrates do. With an algal bloom being a mile away from the factory, it would be more likely that phosphates and/or nitrates were coming from another source. In choice C), finding high concentrations of metal ions upstream the drainage pipe would generally rule out of the factory. Furthermore, metal ions would generally not be a waste product from a fertilizer plant. In choice D), large numbers of larvae, also known as indicator species, probably insect indicate that the water this far from the factory may be very clean. amounts of wastes dumped into the water at the site of the drainage pipe would supply to vital nutrients bacteria that would thrive and use up large amounts of oxygen for their need (cultural eutrophication). Turbidity measures the amount of suspended material in the water and would probably not have much to do with the release of waste water from the production of pharmaceuticals. Water Pollution: Sources
My Answer: I chose "C" because it made the most sense to me. Now I see why a fertilizer cannot be the reason for anaerobic bacteria, fungi, and sludge worms. Most of the choices except "B" and "E" actually measured for the experiment except of observing only.
78. Groundwater contamination is addressed in all of the following EXCEPT the
Correct Answer: A. Clean Water Act
Reasoning: The Clean Water Act, passed in 1972, was enacted to reduce point source and addressed contamination. The safe protecting surface water. It did not directly address groundwater the Drinking water Act, Resource Conservation and Recovery Act, and Superfund Act did address groundwater contamination. Water Pollution: Clean Water Act and Other Relevant Law
My Answer: I chose "D" because I wasn't familiar with Superfund. I knew it was letter choice "E" since I wasn't sure on "C" and "D".
79. BOD indicates
Correct Answer: A. The level of pollution in a sample of water
Reasoning: Biochemical oxygen demand or BOD is the amount of dissolved oxygen needed by aerobic biological organisms in a body of water to breakdown organic material present bin a given water sample at a certain temp. over specific time period. The term also refers to a chemical procedure for determining this amount.
My Answer: I chose E because I thought BOD would be relevant to the concentration of oxygen in a water sample.
80. At which point on the graph would you expect to find the highest concentration of anaerobic bacteria?
Correct Answer: B. B
Reasoning: Anaerobic decomposition is a biological process in which decomposition of organic matter occurs without oxygen. The area of the graph where oxygen in the water is lowest is the area where BOD is the highest. Two processes occur during anaerobic decomposition. First, facultative acid-forming bacteria use organic matter as a food source and produce volatile (organic acids, gases such as carbon dioxide and hydrogen sulfide, stable solids, and more facultative organisms. Second, anaerobic methane formers use the volatile acids as a food source and produce methane gas, stable solids, and more anaerobic methane formers.
My Answer: I guessed by choosing A but now that i'm looking at the correct answer, my answer made no sense. B is the obvious correct answer.
81. Sewage treatment plants have three general processes that water undergoes. Which choice below describes the correct sequence of these three processes?
Correct Answer: B. Separation of solids- breakdown of organic material by bacteria- disinfection with UV light, chlorine, or ozone.
Reasoning: Suspended solid matter s usually removed first by screens and/or sedimentation tanks.
My Answer: I knew that Separation of solids was first but I assumed that disinfecting would be second. Apparently I was wrong.
82. Most solids municipal wastes in the U.S. are disposed of by?
Correct Answer: D. Taking them to sanitary landfills.
Reasoning: Sanitary landfills are one of the most popular forms of watse disposal in the U.S., primarily because they are the least expensive way to dispose of waste. In a sanitary landfill, waste is spread in layers on a piece of property, usually on a marginal or submarginal land. The waste is spread into layers and then compacted tightly, greatly reducing the volume of the waste. It should not be located in areas with high groundwater tables.
My Answer: I chose A because since it is the laziest method between the answer choices, I figured that it would be the most popular in America.
83. The "environmental friendly" methods of dealing with waste disposal are to reuse, reduce and recycle. Which of the following choices places these methods in order of increasing amounts of energy required for that particular process?
Correct Answer: E. Reduce <reuse < recycle.
Reasoning: Whenever possible, waste reduction is the least expensive option. If waste id produces, every effort should be made to reuse it if possible. Recycling is the third option in the waste management hierarchy. Although recycling does help to converse resources and reduce wastes, there are economic and environmental costs associated with waste collection and recycling.
My Answer: I chose A but I don't know why because I remember learning a little chant "reduce, reuse, and recycle... chaa!" so maybe if I would have read the answer choices more carefully I would have gotten the correct answer.
84. A group of workers at a nuclear power plant received an acute exposure of radiation. This means
Correct Answer: B. the workers received a high dosage of radiation in a very short time period
Reasoning: An acute exposure refers to a single exposure to a harmful substance that results in severe biological harm or death. Hazards to Human Health: Acute and Chronic Effects
My Answer: I guessed and chose "C"
85. A laboratory was testing the effectiveness of a new insecticide. The laboratory determined that the LD50 dosage level for the rats was 150 milligrams per kilogram of body mass. Based on this information, which of the following statements would be most accurate?
Correct Answer: B. Fifty out of 100 rats receiving 150 milligrams of the new insecticide per kilogram of body mass would die.
Reasoning: The median lethal dose, LD50 of a toxin, radiation, or pathogen is the does required to kill half the members of a tested population after a specified test duration. LD50 figures are frequently used as a general indicator of a substance's acute toxicity. Hazards to Human Health: Dose-Response Relationships
My Answer: I did not know what the question was asking me do I guessed and chose D.
86. Which point represents the LD50?
Correct Answer: D. D
Reasoning: Follow the Y axis up to 50%, then move right until you reach the curve, then read straight down.
My Answer: I chose "B" because I was stuck on "B" or "D". I got this wrong because I forgot to go down to the X-axis after going through the Y-axis.
87. Which point represents the threshold?
Correct Answer: C. C
Reasoning: The first point along the graph where a response above zero is reached is referred to as a threshold dose. For most drugs, the desired effects are found at doses slightly greater than the threshold dose. At higher doses, undesired side effects appear and grow stronger as the dose increases. The more potent a particular substance is, the steeper this curve will be.
My Answer: I guessed and chose "A" because I didn't know what threshold was. So I guessed and thought it was when it starts to even out and doesn't go any higher.
88. Of the indoor pollutants that are listed below, which one hit the highest total care costs, affects the most people, and causes the most deaths?
Correct Answer: D. Cigarette smoke
Reasoning: Cigarette smoke causes about half a million deaths a year in the United States and represents about 1 of every 5 deaths. On average, adults who smoke cigarettes die 14 years earlier than nonsmokers. Based on current cigarette smoking patterns, an estimated 25 million Americans who are alive today will die prematurely from smoking-related illnesses, including 5 million people younger than 18 years of age. Smokers increase their riskuf up from bronchitis by nearly 10 times, from emphysema by nearly 10 times, and from cancer by up to 22 times. The total cost of caring for Americans with health problems caused by cigarette smoking-counting all sources of medical payments is about $73 billion per year. Hazards to Human Health: Smoking and Other Risks
My Answer: I knew that cigarette smoking impacted the environment and people's health in a negative way but I figured that smog did too. Since cars are required to take a smog test, I assumed that since this test is established, it was important that the affects of smog not enter the environment. I chose C. Smog.
91. Which of the following acts addresses and regulates the disposal of hazardous wastes?
Correct Answers: B. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)
Reasoning: Congress enacted the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) in 1976 to address the increasing problems the nation faced from its growing volume of municipal and industrial waste. RCRA amended the Solid Waste Disposal Act of 1965. It set national goals for:
- Protecting human health and the natural environment from the potential hazards of waste disposal.
- Energy conservation and natural resources.
-Reducing the amount of waste generated through source reduction and recycling.
- Setting standards for the treatment, storage, and disposal of hazardous wastes. Hazards to Human Health: Relevant Laws
My Answer: I chose E. Pollution Prevention Act but now that I'm looking back at it, it doesn't really make sense because ths act only "prevents" pollution. Whereas the correct answer, "Resource Conservation and Recovery Act" actually initiates a recovery for hazardous wastes by regulating them.
7. Global Change 0/9, 0%
92. If the price of a barrel of oil from the Middle East were to suddenly double, it would
Correct Answer: A. make it economically feasible to explore for new sources of oil within the United States, thereby increasing
Reasoning: The supply, which would decrease the price for oil
The marketplace forces of supply and demand determine the price of fuel. If demand grows or if a disruption in supply occurs, there will be upward pressure on prices. By the same token, if demand falls or there is an oversupply of product in the market, there will be downward pressure on prices. Recently, crude oil prices have risen dramatically, driven by rising global demand, speculation on prices, and political instability in several oil producing countries.
My Answer: I chose B. which made no sense because answer choice A is the only logical answer. If oil in the Middle East doubled, it would be easier for the U.S. to find new sources closer to them or "in" the U.S. making it cost less as well.
93. Currently, the gas contributing most to stratospheric ozone breakdown is
Correct Answer: E. Nitrous oxide (N2O) released from livestock manure, sewage treatment, and industrial processes
Reasoning: Currently, nitrous oxide emissions from human activities are more than twice as high as the most leading ozone-depleting gas. Nitrous oxide is emitted from natural sources and as a by-product of agricultural fertilization, livestock manure, sewage treatment, and other industrial processes and is a greenhouse gas. Due to the reduction of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) by the 1987 Montreal Protocol, nitrous oxide is becoming an increasingly larger fraction of the emissions of ozone-depleting substances. Stratospheric Ozone: Causes of Ozone Depletion
My Answer: I chose B. Carbon Tetrachloride. Although Nitrous Oxide makes more sense because it is the most common way that gas is let out into the ozone. The examples of the gas being released should have made choosing the correct answer easier for me but I guess I just wasn't thinking clearly.
94. An increase in greenhouse gases increases troposphere temperatures. If ice melts due to global warming, it affects the earths albedo. Which of the following statements would be true regarding the effect of melting ice and its effect on the earths albedo?
Correct Answer: B. Melting ice would decrease the Earth's albedo resulting in more heat being absorbed, resulting in more ice melting in what would be known as a positive feedback loop.
Reasoning: Ice (snow) albedo is a positive feedback climate process whereby a change in the area of snow-covered land, ice caps, glaciers or sea ice alters the albedo (Earth's reflectivity). Global warming tends to decrease ice cover allowing for greater exposure of darker land to increase absorption of solar energy. leading to more warming and more ice melting. Global Warming: Impacts and Consequences of Global Warming
My Answer: I chose E. I knew that the melting ice would decrease the Earth's albedo but I didn't realize that more heat would be absorbed because of it. I did not know that albedo was a positive feedback climate process. Now it makes sense that darker lands would absorb more of the solar energy.
95. Which of the following was instrumental in significantly reducing the production of chlorofluorocarbons?
Correct Answer: B. Montreal Protocol
Reasoning: The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer is an international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production of numerous substances believed to be responsible for ozone depletion. The treaty went into effect on January 1, 1989. It is widely believed that if the international agreement is adhered to, the ozone layer may be expected to recover by 2050; however, increasing anthropogenic nitrous oxide emissions may delay that goal. Stratospheric Ozone: Laws and Treaties
My Answer: I chose E. I did not know what chlorofluorocarbons were.
96. The majority of the natural greenhouse effect is due to which gas listed below?
Correct Answer: C. Water vapor (H2O)
Reasoning: The key words in this question are “natural” and “greenhouse effect.” Both carbon dioxide and water vapor are produced naturally; water vapor through evaporation and carbon dioxide through animal respiration, volcanic eruptions, and thawing permafrost- Also, “global warming” and “greenhouse effect” are different—do not use the terms inter- changeably.
The greenhouse effect is caused by certain gases (and clouds) absorbing and re—emitting the infrared radiation from Earth’s surface, keeping Earth 20°C to 30°C warmer than it W0U1d be otherwise. Water vapor is the most important contributor to the greenhouse effect. By quantity, there is much more water vapor than carbon dioxide in the atmosphere; it accounts for about 80% of total greenhouse gas mass and 90% of greenhouse gas volume. Water vapor vari es from a trace in extremely cold and dry air to about 4% in extremely warm and humid air. The average amount of water vapor in the atmosphere averaged for all locations is between 2 and 3% while carbon dioxide levels are near 0.04% (more than 60 times as much water vapor in the atmosphere than carbon dioxide). As greenhouse gases, they both trap outgoing long wave radiation between Earth and the atmosphere, keeping temperatures warmer than they would be otherwise. However, carbon dioxide is a more efficient greenhouse gas than water vapor and is being produced by humans at increasing levels. Global warming is the rise in temperatures caused by an increase in the levels of green- house gases due to human activity. Global Warming: Greenhouse Gases and the Greenhouse Effect
My Answer: I chose "A" because due to the advancement of technologies, it emits a lot of CO2 into the atmosphere which deplete the ozone layer. I can see why it can be H2O since there is an abundance of it and is almost everywhere.
97. Which of the following factors are primary reasons why sea level is rising?
I. Thermal expansion of the oceans
II. More frequent rain and flooding
III. Melting of sea ice
IV. Melting of land-based ice
Correct Answer: D. I and IV
Reasoning: Global sea level rose at an average rate of about 3.5 mm per year from 1993 to 2009. Two main factors contribute to sea level rise. The first is thermal expansion: as ocean water warms, it expands. The second is from the contribution of land—based ice due to increased melting. The major store of water on land is found in glaciers and ice sheets. Melting of sea ice does not contribute to sea level rise (think about ice cubes melting in a glass of water-the level does not rise). Global Warming: Impacts and Consequences of Global Warming.
My Answer: I chose A because I knew that thermal expansion of the oceans was one of the major causes of sea level rising. I also knew that melting ice caps was another factor. I just couldn't distinguish between melting of ice caps and melting of land-based ice. I could see why the correct answer was melting of land-based ice.
98. Which countries listed below have stated they would not agree to any further reductions in greenhouse gas emissions under and updated Kyoto Protocol (Doha Amendment) set to expire in 2020?
I. Canada
II. China
III. Japan
IV. Russia
V. United States
Correct Answer: D. I, III, IV, and V
Reasoning: The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty that commits countries to reduce greenhouse gases emissions based on the premise that (a) global warming exists and (b) man—made CO2 emissions have caused it. The first Kyoto Protocol consisted of 192 coun~ tries and went into effect in 2005 and expired in 2012. In the 2007, non-binding ‘Washington Declaration‘, Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, Russia, the United Kingdom, the United States, Brazil, China, India, Mexico, and South Africa agreed in principle on the outline of a successor to the Kyoto Protocol. They envisaged a global cap-and—trade system that would apply to both industrialized nations and developing countries, and initially hoped that it would be in place by 2009. In 2010, 76 developed and developing countries collectively responsible for 85% of annual global greenhouse gas emissions agreed to and pledged (Cancun Agreements) to control their emissions of greenhouse gases. However, by 2012, the USA, Japan, Russia, and Canada had indicated they would not agree to a second Kyoto commitment. Global Warming: Relevant Laws and Treaties
My Answer: I got this question incorrect by choosing B. because I thought China was one o he countries who disagreed. However, I did know that the U.S. disagreed.
99. The two greatest threats to the species' survival are generally considered to be
Correct Answer: E. IV. and V.
Reasoning: Most scientists believe that invasive species or the intro of non-native species into regions never before occupied by the species and loss of habit or destruction or splitting up of a once continuous habitat to enable humans to use the land are the primary threats to a species' survival.
My Answer: C. I knew that lack of food would threaten the species' survival but I didn't realize that invasive species would also be a main factor. It makes sense now that I have read the reasoning.
100. Which international agreement has been helpful in protecting endangered animals and plants by listing those species and products whose international trade is controlled?
Correct Answer: B. CITES
Reasoning: CITES (the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora) is an international agreement between governments. Its aim is to ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten their survival. Loss of Biodiversity: Relevant Laws and Treaties
My Answer: I chose E. because at the time it was the answer choice that made the most sense to me. "International Treaty on Endangered and Threatened Species" was the most logical answer to me. I got this question incorrect because I did not remember what CITIES stood for.
Correct Answer: A. make it economically feasible to explore for new sources of oil within the United States, thereby increasing
Reasoning: The supply, which would decrease the price for oil
The marketplace forces of supply and demand determine the price of fuel. If demand grows or if a disruption in supply occurs, there will be upward pressure on prices. By the same token, if demand falls or there is an oversupply of product in the market, there will be downward pressure on prices. Recently, crude oil prices have risen dramatically, driven by rising global demand, speculation on prices, and political instability in several oil producing countries.
My Answer: I chose B. which made no sense because answer choice A is the only logical answer. If oil in the Middle East doubled, it would be easier for the U.S. to find new sources closer to them or "in" the U.S. making it cost less as well.
93. Currently, the gas contributing most to stratospheric ozone breakdown is
Correct Answer: E. Nitrous oxide (N2O) released from livestock manure, sewage treatment, and industrial processes
Reasoning: Currently, nitrous oxide emissions from human activities are more than twice as high as the most leading ozone-depleting gas. Nitrous oxide is emitted from natural sources and as a by-product of agricultural fertilization, livestock manure, sewage treatment, and other industrial processes and is a greenhouse gas. Due to the reduction of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) by the 1987 Montreal Protocol, nitrous oxide is becoming an increasingly larger fraction of the emissions of ozone-depleting substances. Stratospheric Ozone: Causes of Ozone Depletion
My Answer: I chose B. Carbon Tetrachloride. Although Nitrous Oxide makes more sense because it is the most common way that gas is let out into the ozone. The examples of the gas being released should have made choosing the correct answer easier for me but I guess I just wasn't thinking clearly.
94. An increase in greenhouse gases increases troposphere temperatures. If ice melts due to global warming, it affects the earths albedo. Which of the following statements would be true regarding the effect of melting ice and its effect on the earths albedo?
Correct Answer: B. Melting ice would decrease the Earth's albedo resulting in more heat being absorbed, resulting in more ice melting in what would be known as a positive feedback loop.
Reasoning: Ice (snow) albedo is a positive feedback climate process whereby a change in the area of snow-covered land, ice caps, glaciers or sea ice alters the albedo (Earth's reflectivity). Global warming tends to decrease ice cover allowing for greater exposure of darker land to increase absorption of solar energy. leading to more warming and more ice melting. Global Warming: Impacts and Consequences of Global Warming
My Answer: I chose E. I knew that the melting ice would decrease the Earth's albedo but I didn't realize that more heat would be absorbed because of it. I did not know that albedo was a positive feedback climate process. Now it makes sense that darker lands would absorb more of the solar energy.
95. Which of the following was instrumental in significantly reducing the production of chlorofluorocarbons?
Correct Answer: B. Montreal Protocol
Reasoning: The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer is an international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production of numerous substances believed to be responsible for ozone depletion. The treaty went into effect on January 1, 1989. It is widely believed that if the international agreement is adhered to, the ozone layer may be expected to recover by 2050; however, increasing anthropogenic nitrous oxide emissions may delay that goal. Stratospheric Ozone: Laws and Treaties
My Answer: I chose E. I did not know what chlorofluorocarbons were.
96. The majority of the natural greenhouse effect is due to which gas listed below?
Correct Answer: C. Water vapor (H2O)
Reasoning: The key words in this question are “natural” and “greenhouse effect.” Both carbon dioxide and water vapor are produced naturally; water vapor through evaporation and carbon dioxide through animal respiration, volcanic eruptions, and thawing permafrost- Also, “global warming” and “greenhouse effect” are different—do not use the terms inter- changeably.
The greenhouse effect is caused by certain gases (and clouds) absorbing and re—emitting the infrared radiation from Earth’s surface, keeping Earth 20°C to 30°C warmer than it W0U1d be otherwise. Water vapor is the most important contributor to the greenhouse effect. By quantity, there is much more water vapor than carbon dioxide in the atmosphere; it accounts for about 80% of total greenhouse gas mass and 90% of greenhouse gas volume. Water vapor vari es from a trace in extremely cold and dry air to about 4% in extremely warm and humid air. The average amount of water vapor in the atmosphere averaged for all locations is between 2 and 3% while carbon dioxide levels are near 0.04% (more than 60 times as much water vapor in the atmosphere than carbon dioxide). As greenhouse gases, they both trap outgoing long wave radiation between Earth and the atmosphere, keeping temperatures warmer than they would be otherwise. However, carbon dioxide is a more efficient greenhouse gas than water vapor and is being produced by humans at increasing levels. Global warming is the rise in temperatures caused by an increase in the levels of green- house gases due to human activity. Global Warming: Greenhouse Gases and the Greenhouse Effect
My Answer: I chose "A" because due to the advancement of technologies, it emits a lot of CO2 into the atmosphere which deplete the ozone layer. I can see why it can be H2O since there is an abundance of it and is almost everywhere.
97. Which of the following factors are primary reasons why sea level is rising?
I. Thermal expansion of the oceans
II. More frequent rain and flooding
III. Melting of sea ice
IV. Melting of land-based ice
Correct Answer: D. I and IV
Reasoning: Global sea level rose at an average rate of about 3.5 mm per year from 1993 to 2009. Two main factors contribute to sea level rise. The first is thermal expansion: as ocean water warms, it expands. The second is from the contribution of land—based ice due to increased melting. The major store of water on land is found in glaciers and ice sheets. Melting of sea ice does not contribute to sea level rise (think about ice cubes melting in a glass of water-the level does not rise). Global Warming: Impacts and Consequences of Global Warming.
My Answer: I chose A because I knew that thermal expansion of the oceans was one of the major causes of sea level rising. I also knew that melting ice caps was another factor. I just couldn't distinguish between melting of ice caps and melting of land-based ice. I could see why the correct answer was melting of land-based ice.
98. Which countries listed below have stated they would not agree to any further reductions in greenhouse gas emissions under and updated Kyoto Protocol (Doha Amendment) set to expire in 2020?
I. Canada
II. China
III. Japan
IV. Russia
V. United States
Correct Answer: D. I, III, IV, and V
Reasoning: The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty that commits countries to reduce greenhouse gases emissions based on the premise that (a) global warming exists and (b) man—made CO2 emissions have caused it. The first Kyoto Protocol consisted of 192 coun~ tries and went into effect in 2005 and expired in 2012. In the 2007, non-binding ‘Washington Declaration‘, Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, Russia, the United Kingdom, the United States, Brazil, China, India, Mexico, and South Africa agreed in principle on the outline of a successor to the Kyoto Protocol. They envisaged a global cap-and—trade system that would apply to both industrialized nations and developing countries, and initially hoped that it would be in place by 2009. In 2010, 76 developed and developing countries collectively responsible for 85% of annual global greenhouse gas emissions agreed to and pledged (Cancun Agreements) to control their emissions of greenhouse gases. However, by 2012, the USA, Japan, Russia, and Canada had indicated they would not agree to a second Kyoto commitment. Global Warming: Relevant Laws and Treaties
My Answer: I got this question incorrect by choosing B. because I thought China was one o he countries who disagreed. However, I did know that the U.S. disagreed.
99. The two greatest threats to the species' survival are generally considered to be
Correct Answer: E. IV. and V.
Reasoning: Most scientists believe that invasive species or the intro of non-native species into regions never before occupied by the species and loss of habit or destruction or splitting up of a once continuous habitat to enable humans to use the land are the primary threats to a species' survival.
My Answer: C. I knew that lack of food would threaten the species' survival but I didn't realize that invasive species would also be a main factor. It makes sense now that I have read the reasoning.
100. Which international agreement has been helpful in protecting endangered animals and plants by listing those species and products whose international trade is controlled?
Correct Answer: B. CITES
Reasoning: CITES (the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora) is an international agreement between governments. Its aim is to ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten their survival. Loss of Biodiversity: Relevant Laws and Treaties
My Answer: I chose E. because at the time it was the answer choice that made the most sense to me. "International Treaty on Endangered and Threatened Species" was the most logical answer to me. I got this question incorrect because I did not remember what CITIES stood for.